The assassination of the archduke of the Austro-Hungarian Empire by Serbian nationalists started war between Austro-Hungary and Serbia, followed quickly by Russia, Germany, Britain, and France and many others. The first World War had started.
President of the United States, Woodrow Wilson, preached neutrality, citing the precedent set from the birth of the nation and the distance between the European struggles and the United States. American neutrality also allowed the US economy to thrive with businesses able to trade freely with the warring nations in need of supplies and goods. Although America might have been neutral, there were still many who felt strong ties to European countries, and the geological proximity and cultural similarities of some of the Allies lead Americans inevitably do more business with the Allies.
German U-boat attacks, specifically on the British passenger ship, the Lusitania, increased tensions between America and the Central powers. The Germans wished to have unrestricted submarine warfare, but agreed to stop their attacks if the United States helped to dismantle the British blockade which they deemed unfair and the United States as partisan for allowing.
Neutrality almost worked the United States, but a note was obtained from the German minister in Mexico that encouraged Mexico to join the Central Powers and attack the United States increased American hostility towards the Germans. Wilson had already ramped up the American army and navy in preparation for war.
On April 4, 1917, Congress voted to declare war on Germany.
I believe that this historical event brings up a larger, quite interesting question. That being, is it possible for a country with as many ties to other nations as the United States had at the time to stay neutral in a time of war? Wilson had proposed that it could be done, but ultimately the US decided to join the Allies anyways. If the situation had been handled differently, would it or would it not be possible for the US to stay neutral throughout WWI?
ReplyDeleteThis is a very intersting question to consider. I myself would find it hard to believe that a country/group connected to so many other countries would be able to delay their joining of the war. I think that because there were so many ties to the war, that they were bound to eventually join the war. We saw an example of this in our imperialism activity. Group 3 sort of played the role that America did as they were allied with every other group in the class. Their goal was to stay allied and united with everyone but once war broke out the sided with two other groups to turn against 4,5,6. This goes to show that yes the initial goal can be to stay neutral but in times of war everyone will eventually have to end up backing one another up.
DeleteI think the U.S entered the war because of the British blockade. I think it was a main point into bringing the U.S into the war because the Germans were angry that they could not trade with the U.S. The U.S kept claiming neutrality but they traded with the British and by doing that they helped Britain with their war effort. The U.S however was indifferent because by trading with the British they were making a lot of profit. I think part of the reason why the Germans attack their ships even after warnings was because of the hypocrisy.
ReplyDelete